our tafsir is different
what aimmah taught is like this
Narrated Ja’far ibn Muhammad al-Sufi:
I asked Abu Ja’far Muhammad ibn Ali al-Rida, peace be upon them both, saying: “O son of the Allah’s Apostle, why was the Prophet called the Ummi?” He answered: “What do the people say?”. I said: “They claim that he was called the Ummi because he was illiterate.” He replied: “They lie! May the curse of Allah be upon them for this. Allah has clearly said in His Book: “He it is Who sent among the Ummi a Messenger from among themselves, to recite to them His Verses (i.e. the Qur’an), to purify them, to teach them the book (i.e. literacy) and to teach them wisdom (i.e. knowledge and ethics). [Qur’an 62:2].” How would he teach what he himself could not do? By Allah, Allah’s Apostle used to read and write in 72, or he said 73, languages. He was called the Ummi because he was from Makkah. Makkah is one of the mother (umm) towns, and this is why Allah the High and Exalted said: ‘So that you (Muhammad) may warn the mother (umm) town (i.e. Makkah) and whoever is round about it’.”
Muhammad ibn Ali ibn al-Husayn ibn Babuyah al-Saduq, Ilal al-Sharai (Beirut, Lebanon: Muasassat al-A’lami lil Matbu’aat; first edition, 1988) vol. 1, p. 151, Chapter 105, Hadith Number 1.
^How can he say for sure that this is from the teachings of Imams of Ahlul Bayt?
The above narration he quoted has reached through weak sanad. . .
أبى رحمه الله قال حدثنا سعد بن عبد الله عن احمد بن محمد بن عيسى عن ابن عبد الله محمد بن خالد البرقى عن جعفر بن محمد الصوفى قال
First, there are different opinions regarding the reliability of Ibn Abdallah Muhammad b. Khalid al-Barqi. Najashi and Ibn al-Ghadheiri considered him daeef and Shaykh Tusi (ar) considered him thiqa.
Second, the sanad has majhool narrator Jafar b. Muhammad al-Sufi.
The following narration from the same chapter is authentic which says that Prophet (saw) read and(but?) not write (i.e. shia sahih hadith):
حدثنا محمد بن الحسن رضى الله عنه قال: حدثنا سعد بن عبد الله قال حدثنا احمد بن محمد بن عيسى عن الحسين بن سعيد ومحمد بن خالد البرقى عن محمد ابن ابى عمير عن هشام بن سالم عن أبى عبد الله ” ع ” قال: كان النبي (ص) يقرأ الكتاب ولا يكتب
Note: The point of discussion is the earlier times of prophet-hood.
This is against quranic as well as general concepts.
Quran 7:157 says: Allatheena yattabiAAoona alrrasoola alnnabiyya al-ommiyya allathee yajidoonahu maktooban AAindahum fee alttawrati waal-injeeli ya/muruhum bialmaAAroofi wayanhahum AAani almunkari wayuhillu lahumu alttayyibati wayuharrimu AAalayhimu alkhaba-itha wayadaAAu AAanhum israhum waal-aghlala allatee kanat AAalayhim faallatheena amanoo bihi waAAazzaroohu wanasaroohu waittabaAAoo alnnoora allathee onzila maAAahu ola-ika humu almuflihoona
(surah juma) Quran 62:2 says: Huwa allathee baAAatha fee al-ommiyyeena rasoolan minhum yatloo AAalayhim ayatihi wayuzakkeehim wayuAAallimuhumu alkitaba waalhikmata wa-in kanoo min qablu lafee dalalin mubeenin
Few points to note:
1. Allah uses two words above i.e. OMMIYY & OMMIYYEEN
OMMIYYA IS SINGULAR & OMMIYYEEN IS PLURAL.
IF WE CONSIDER OMMIYYA AS FOR (as shia said): “Makkah is one of the mother (umm) towns, and this is why Allah the High and Exalted said: ‘So that you (Muhammad) may warn the mother (umm) town (i.e. Makkah) and whoever is round about it”
According to surah juma 62:2, then Allah uses word OMMIYYEEN for peoples of makkah. Then why Allah uses the word OMMIYY for prophet muhammad(pbuh) in 7:157?
i.e. Allah uses word OMMIYY in 7:157 this means Allah is talking about single person i.e. prophet muhammad(pbuh) as we can see words of 7:157 i.e. ‘Allatheena yattabiAAoona alrrasoola alnnabiyya al-ommiyya’. Here none other than rasool-Allah is present.
Then why Allah said OMMIYY here i.e. singular
2. If we consider Makkah is considered as ummul-qura means un-lettered then please answer this:
Lets suppose, I know that my friend’s(amir) complete family tree, is completely jahil (& i call them “Umul Qura”) but only my friend(amir) is scientist (in whole world) means he have knowledge.
Then what do you think when ever i call him or say him something then i will call him jahil amir?
Absolutely not at all. Why?
Because i know that he is knowledgeble person & completely different from his family.
The same funda is also applied here.
3. If you are considering OMMIYYEEN as OMM+IYYEEN then this do not make any sense because OMM means mother the what is the meaning of IYYEEN!
As you applied in surah juma 62:2 above.